Started by: ena malcup (1120) 

Just been reading how Hungary vetoed acceptance of Ukraine's earlier requests to join NATO.

Now came across online news that the President of Croatia intends to veto accession of Finland and Sweden. (Even though Croatian Parliament is supportive of them joining. )

How can NATO be effective if some member will exercise veto because their allegiance to Putin is greater than that they have to NATO?

If a NATO country is attacked, can article five be voided by a friend of Putin exercising their veto?

Bit like these dodgy insurance companies which take your money, but refuse to pay out on any claim.

Started: 10th May 2022 at 22:08

Posted by: Tommy Two Stroke (9670)

On the other hand LINK

Yoo get nobheads in all walks of life

Replied: 10th May 2022 at 22:55

Posted by: ena malcup (1120) 


There appears to be some debate about whether or not he is able to invoke a veto.

We shall see, no doubt

Replied: 10th May 2022 at 23:12


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